And yet I made no argument based on that I'd never heard of it so how is it a logical fallacy in any form? It was a statement.
Putting a statement at the beginning of an argument does rather imply that it's part of said argument, otherwise it's largely meaningless and shouldn't be there. You've never heard it used that way, so what?
And yet that definition still doesn't require physical actions by Suarez to create the framework for context.
It doesn't require it, but it does accept that they play a part in context, which was something you denied: "I'm not sure why you think Suarez would have to point out his skin or other physical actions, that's not context."
I said linguistics and communication. Communication was a deliberately broad term. It's perfectly possible to know context of the situation without Suarez acting.
Yes, yes it is. But as I have said numerous times, the context that we have is too broad to ascertain whether or not this was a racial slur or simply an insult. (Let's not go into how arbitary your exclusion of action from communication is)
I outlined the context of the situation, disprove that rather than playing around with definitions of words, it's an argument that actually has substance.
You mean like I did several times with Mike? The context is that Suarez was angry with Evra and called him a negrito, in an insulting sense. That doesn't clarify whether or not he was using its racist connotations. I feel like I have to put this in huge bold letters because I've said it so many times and all anyone else has done is dance around it, saying "nope" without ever coming close to substantiating their rebuttal.
neither require a physical action to know the context of the situations.
No, but the current information is inadequate. If you read my post where I mention physical action you'll see that I never say or imply that context cannot be derived without action, merely that linguistic ambiguity in this case leaves us with rather indefinite conclusions about whether or not it was a racial slur. You seem to have got yourself in a tizz about a point I never made...
Does that mean Gray and Keys weren't being sexist, since it's oh so ****** difficult to sense the context of what they said.
When did Gray and Keys use a term as ambiguous in English as negrito is in Spanish? They also said more than one word so you could establish a contextual framework (aka the tone) from their words. With Suarez you cannot.
The argument at point is whether what Suarez said was in a context
Whaaaaat? No it's not, the argument is whether or not the context in question is enough to determine if Suarez used the term negrito in a racially offensive way. Given that we can only ascertain that it was said as an insult, and given that negrito has multiple negative meanings, it's impossible to conclude that it was racially offensive.
So again, I can racially insult someone, but as long as I have no gestures while doing it, I'm not being racist?
I don't want to seem like a troll but you've either woefully misread or misconstrued what I've said.
There's social context in Europe, you don't say what Suarez did in a non-racist way, it doesn't happen.
That's an amazingly sweeping assumption but it's also irrelevant. The social context of Europe doesn't change the fact that Negrito has a non-racial positive and a negative meaning, in addition to being used as a slur.
You're clutching at straws.
You're standing in a field, talking to strawmen.